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doesn't it imply the latter?
The two sets don't necessarily map 1:1 onto each other. Giving people pronoun guidance is one line, telling them how you identify might be a whole book.
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At a guess the two might not match as directly as you assume, plus the latter isn't really necessary information in day to day social or professional contexts but if you ever need to refer to the person in the third person knowing which pronoun to use is useful.
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I have considered this before and assumed that it is more specifically helpful to a would-be addresser - therefore more likely to result in the person being addressed correctly? He/she/they aren’t the only pronouns and someone may identify as a man, for instance, but prefer the pronoun ‘they’.
Edit: page refresh fail and it was said better above! 🙄
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gbj_tester
hoefla
AlexD
@chez_jay
Genuine, specific question, and I am not sure where else to ask:
Why do people tend to state: 'My pronouns are [he/she/they]' rather than 'I am [a woman/man/other]'?
The former seems to be rather indirect to me -- if it's requesting the reader respect an aspect of the writer's self-identity, doesn't it imply the latter?