Would Sarri actually have allowed Chelsea's first goal though, or was Luiz disobeying his orders?
The number of times they unsuccessfully played out the back before Luiz finally gambled with a long ball, which paid off - was that all part of a tactical masterplan, or was that player frustration with tactics and a style of play that was being negated by Man City being set up to stop it?
Would Sarri actually have allowed Chelsea's first goal though, or was Luiz disobeying his orders?
The number of times they unsuccessfully played out the back before Luiz finally gambled with a long ball, which paid off - was that all part of a tactical masterplan, or was that player frustration with tactics and a style of play that was being negated by Man City being set up to stop it?