So when the commentators on ITV4 say that Wiggins will be the first British winner, why are they discounting the win of Roche in 1987?
He is by definition from the British Isles, therefore making him British...
I assume you are only taking the piss, but just in case you are genuinely stupid, you'll find that most Irish people object to the term British Isles. There has never been a British tdf winner. But there have been irish winners.