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@simonw7
I'm 8 months thru a 12 month scheme on a £1000 worth of bike plus equipment...looks like I'll have an expensive month at end of year now (just in time for christmas, yay!)
what i fail to understand, forgive me for my ignorance - is who exactly is going to benefit from this extra money I will now have to pay at the end - presumably my employer (as they own the bike, and the final payment is to transfer ownership to me based on residual value)...if so, why the fuck does HMRC care? Nothing in it for them, not therefore a 'tax loophole'? I'm sure I have this wrong somehow, but would just like to understand the motive behind this from HMRC perspective.