Didn't De moivre show that; Cos(x)^n = Re((Cos(x) + iSin(x))^n) = Re(e^ix)? And similarly that Sin(x) was the Imaginary part of the above?
@fruitbat started
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Didn't De moivre show that; Cos(x)^n = Re((Cos(x) + iSin(x))^n) = Re(e^ix)?
And similarly that Sin(x) was the Imaginary part of the above?