What I was trying to ask, but it being early in the day, lacked the vocabulary to do so, was if there are any instances of the Human Rights act having been used successfully to defend the human rights of an innocent Briton? I'm aware of the daily mail examples where it's supposedly been used to prevent justice being done, but no-one ever makes news about successes. If there have been such cases, could these rights have been defended using pre-existing laws? The government have roundly ignored the Human Rights act when they send police thugs to kettle protesters, so was it ever more than a piece of spin?
Ah, the Daily Mail, it's a bit Godwin's that isn't it?
I've got meetings this morning, but start with this for the background on why it was put directly into UK law.
And ask yourself about this question "I'm aware of the daily mail examples where it's supposedly been used to prevent justice being done, but no-one ever makes news about successes." and what sells newspapers.
Ah, the Daily Mail, it's a bit Godwin's that isn't it?
I've got meetings this morning, but start with this for the background on why it was put directly into UK law.
And ask yourself about this question "I'm aware of the daily mail examples where it's supposedly been used to prevent justice being done, but no-one ever makes news about successes." and what sells newspapers.