I thought that there was no "mens rea" when the other party purported to be able to give consent (i.e. by pretending to be over 16) and the "actus reus" was sufficient.
Yet another reason why I'm not a lawyer.
@tom. started
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I thought that there was no "mens rea" when the other party purported to be able to give consent (i.e. by pretending to be over 16) and the "actus reus" was sufficient.
Yet another reason why I'm not a lawyer.