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Yep...
Just to clarify: this isn’t just the first time since WW2 that all incumbent parties in developed countries lost vote share.
It’s the first time since this data was first recorded in 1905. Essentially the first time in the history of democracy (universal suffrage began in 1894).
https://x.com/jburnmurdoch/status/1854559598574784631?t=HWmVtMegtLpuznKN03OMTA&s=19
villa-ru
Over the last couple of years, around the world, the incumbents have lost, often considerably, taking the blame for Civid/Ukraine/inflation/fuel prices/ Middle East/immigration/whatever, even when they have handled some of these reasonably well.
With economy/immigration cited by voters as a major factor here, was this more inevitable than the widely predicted “too close to call” line (with the hindsight caveat plus anyone who “knew” Trump was going to win having cleaned up at the bookies and being too knee deep in considering new bike purchasing options to have time to post here)?