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  • There’s some garages behind the back of my house. 4 of them which presumably belong to some of the properties behind my house also. If I wanted to try and buy these and then have them form part of my homes boundary what’s the process?

    Buying them would be a different process from having them included in the boundary? Very hypothetical question and probably totally stupid!

  • Great workshop and golf club potential 😉

  • Why do they need to 'form part of your home's boundary'? If you own them they become a separate asset which you could parcel with your home when you came to sell or sell/lease separately should you choose to. I'm just not sure I see the advantage, but i may be missing something here...

  • Would depend on what rights came with the garages. If there's space between your property and the garage, it may come with a shared right (with other garage owners) to use it for an access point, or may even come with a sole right to use the space (which would allow you to build some kind of through space, though that's less likely) but you wouldn't know until you had a look at what rights came with the garages by checking the documentation.

  • Depends on whether you're buying the freehold, or leasehold. Garages are often leasehold (with shared freehold).

    If the freehold, then in effect you own both sides of the boundary and can do as you please.

    If the leasehold, then you'd technically need the permission of the freeholder (which could be ALL other garage owners) with some sort of agreement to revert the boundary if selling.

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