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Matt101
Perhaps, I assume it depends on the country and your contract?
I invoice Sweden in GBP regularly and the company that pays me pays VAT at 25% in Sweden, but I have to zero-rate my invoice to them (B2B) and then need to document zero-rated VAT in the UK as otherwise HMRC would default to requesting VAT at 20%.
If the situation was reversed then I believe the Swedish company would zero-rate their invoice to me and my company would be 'Reverse Charged' as the buyer of foreign services and would then have a 20% VAT liability in the UK which could not be recovered.
I may have gotten something wrong, but this is my current understanding!