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Isn't the whole point of this to show that a small percentage of the population are causing the most harm?
That's true but I don't see what it has to do with "consumerism". I was trying to read into your point on consumerism and wondered whether the intention was to make a link with the inherent income / wealth inequality of capitalistic societies.
I understand your point, but why is relative consumption more significant than absolute consumption in this? Isnt the whole point of this to show that a small percentage of the population are causing the most harm?