I'm suggesting that there is a link between disposable income and consumption.
But it goes the other way to what you said. Rich people spend a lower % of their incomes. Spread it around more (i.e. fewer rich people) and you get more consumption.
I understand your point, but why is relative consumption more significant than absolute consumption in this? Isnt the whole point of this to show that a small percentage of the population are causing the most harm?
Can you explain your point please? I'm not following you.
I'm suggesting that there is a link between disposable income and consumption and that is why people with more money tend to consume more.
Edit: and also that we live in a consumerist society where we are encouraged to consume more every day through almost every medium we have access to.