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but what is the difference between using an anonymous donor and the doctor himself providing it
As I understand it the parents weren't looking for donation, just IVF and the male donation provided wasn't used, the doctor substituted his own.
So its like going to get your own frozen eggs implanted, but he puts his own in instead.
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As I understand it the parents weren't looking for donation, just IVF and the male donation provided wasn't used, the doctor substituted his own.
So its like going to get your own frozen eggs implanted, but he puts his own in instead.
The Guardian article isn't clear about this, but in fact a lot of these were cases where the parents had requested donor sperm. Jacoba Ballard, one of the main people quoted in the Guardian article, had been told she was conceived through donor inseminiation when she was 10.
It's going to be hard to make this comment with sufficient nuance / sensitivity on a text medium, but what is the difference between using an anonymous donor and the doctor himself providing it? Just the ick factor?
Clearly the lack of disclosure is wrong, but that is a slightly separate issue (that doctors probably didn't think would ever come to light when doing this in the 70s and 80s).