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If we do make that assumption that everyone who has a Twitter & LinkedIn account (and if we add more channels like newspapers, magazines etc etc) has a FB account then can I narrow down the range for more than two channels?
As in your post if you assume that probability of hitting a person on one platform is independent of whether you hit them on another platform, it's just like a binomial distribution with multiple p values. I'm out walking so I don't have a pen or anything but I think in your example you'd have P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - (6/12) × (9/12) × (9.6/12) = 70% where X is the number of platforms you reach someone on.
frankenbike
Thanks.
As you say, a range is the only way of providing 'certainty' but I think assumptions can be made as I have done in my previous post. It's safe to say that (most) adults in the UK have a FB account and so this total available audience can be used as a proxy for total addressable audience size. I guess this would be better if we were running TV as who doesn't have one of those but we're not...
If we do make that assumption that everyone who has a Twitter & LinkedIn account (and if we add more channels like newspapers, magazines etc etc) has a FB account then can I narrow down the range for more than two channels?