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I don't think so. But I'm also not in the industry so might be making up terms
I've assumed you have 30m adults in the UK
So FB has 12m adults
I.e. its reach is 40% of the UK population. maybe a better term is saturation?then the 'effectiveness' % I guessed was that, given someone is on facebook, the chance they saw the ad was 50%
i.e. hit = reach * effectiveness
That's super useful - thanks.
Question then, if I know UK addressable audience for FB (ie total number of adults with accounts) and I know the number of adults in the UK, I can use that as the effectiveness?
I'll still be using the audience population and platform population for the specific audience (ie 18-50 yr old men who like football - not my actual audience but you get the point).
For example (made up data):