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This bugs me. Any whole number can be written as the product of primes, but can any given whole number be written as the product of only one set of primes? If so, why? I can't intuit why that must be true.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_arithmetic
Greenbank
This bugs me. Any whole number can be written as the product of primes, but can any given whole number be written as the product of only one set of primes? If so, why? I can't intuit why that must be true.