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I think you and @hugo7 are talking at cross purposes. Because your post was a lot more ambiguous than you think.
Here's what sumo said:
My point is I think it's less excuseable to spout racist shit in 2008 than 1980 because it's less prevalent.
To which you said
I think it's the other way round.
I think @hugo7 read "I'd argue it's the other way round" as meaning "It was actually less excusable to spout racist shit in 1980". I certainly wasn't sure what you meant, but left it. Now it looks as if you meant "It's less prevalent in 2008 because it's less excusable".
Hope that clears things up. Unless I got one or both of you wrong, in which case it's less clear than ever.
itsbruce
Eseman
Same, but IME overt racism is challenged more often, or accepted less encouragingly, now than it was previously. That has led to it becoming less prevalent in media, social dialogue, laws, etc.