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It'd be a home owner loan, which I suspect would be against the flat but for the garage if that makes sense
I suppose there is an outside chance that the lender is assuming that the garage will come into their security net as part of the purchase? I always find these rules on loan purpose for top-ups odd because there is no way for them to ensure you don’t spend the £20k for ‘home improvements’ on a holiday...
It'd be a home owner loan, which I suspect would be against the flat but for the garage if that makes sense? I'm just trying to get the shape of things really.
I'd say that the short-lease garage is worth less, question now is what to offer for them both.