Should Scotland be an independent country?

If this was 'meaningless' why did the House of Lords sit for nearly 10 years to make a ruling, through 5 separate cases on Factortame alone, on the problem of how EU law should be dealt with in terms of UK law?

What are you asking me? I ask because you appear to be trying to use a case that is about interpreting the application of law to discuss making law - these are two different things, no?

We agreed that EU law had primacy when we signed up to it, that's a demonstration of our sovrinty in action for those to whom that is important.