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If this was 'meaningless' why did the House of Lords sit for nearly 10 years to make a ruling, through 5 separate cases on Factortame alone, on the problem of how EU law should be dealt with in terms of UK law?
hurricane_run-
If this was 'meaningless' why did the House of Lords sit for nearly 10 years to make a ruling, through 5 separate cases on Factortame alone, on the problem of how EU law should be dealt with in terms of UK law?
What are you asking me? I ask because you appear to be trying to use a case that is about interpreting the application of law to discuss making law - these are two different things, no?
We agreed that EU law had primacy when we signed up to it, that's a demonstration of our sovrinty in action for those to whom that is important.
Dammit
But that's meaningless, as we were members of the EU and therefore made EU law.
Now we have a situation where we have to align with EU law (or face even greater sanctions than today) but have no say - and the potential future situation where Scotland makes EU law that England has to obey, with no say in it.