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Not in any measurable way though.
Political candidates focus their last-minute campaigning efforts on swing constituencies, and that swing could be measured in financial bets as well as polls (presumably there are some controls on bookies selling localised betting data?)
Swing constituencies are already very established and well recognised though, and the causation relating to betting & odds is in the opposite direction than you seem to be implying - odds change because of the perceived probability of either party winning (and by how much money the bookies expect to make / lose), not the other way round.
[Edit] Maybe there is a case for suggesting that voting itself is influenced by polling data & analysis, which may well include betting odds as a factor. I'll stand by my point that it's unmeasurable in any meaningful way though.
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NotThamesWater
But as I outlined above., the cumulative effect of betting may influence the outcome.