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The accuracy of a pregnancy test does not change depending on how many women are currently pregnant.
It does if you compare the results of the test applied over a population with the actual number of results in that population, which is how you would define the accuracy of the results generally. The accuracy being referred to is, by definition, the accuracy of the results from a set group of people, not merely an individual. Because without referring to a group, you can't work out the actual probability of you being positive to whatever's being tested.
Brommers-
It does if you compare the results of the test applied over a population with the actual number of results in that population
Which I've said a few times, including in the post you quote. "What does change is the raw number of positive and negative results due to there being more people who can get false negatives."
, which is how you would define the accuracy of the results generally.
If you mean sample population, sure. Not general population. Otherwise how would you ever be able to judge the accuracy of a pregnancy test? It would change by the minute. (well, not vastly. It would change based on geographical location though.).
The accuracy being referred to is, by definition, the accuracy of the results from a set group of people, not merely an individual. Because without referring to a group, you can't work out the actual probability of you being positive to whatever's being tested.
Yes. I've said this.
Am I the one who is being unclear?
Absolutely. Agree with all of that.
But the part I'm trying to decipher follows from this: The accuracy of a pregnancy test does not change depending on how many women are currently pregnant.
What does change is the raw number of positive and negative results due to there being more people who can get false negatives. But any given man or woman will still have the same likelihood of getting a particular result.