Why is family consent needed to gather an anonymous statistic like that?
They haven’t been very anonymised. As discussed very early on in this thread. I’d imagine they’ll be reported just as a death unless consent is given for age, condition etc.
So the data is held back so you can't trace symptoms etc back to an individual, and therefor figure out how / why the person passed?
I’d imagine they’ll be reported just as a death unless consent is given for age, condition etc.
Oh if that's the case, then alright. I read it as 'deaths will not appear in the statistics if consent is withheld', which sounds a bit weird.
@GoatandTricycle started
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Why is family consent needed to gather an anonymous statistic like that?