This graph suggests it is perfectly feasible for Froome to be totally innocent doesn't it? I'm reading it right arn't I?
Here, a study has a shown that a dose similar to what Froome claims to have taken resulted in a urinary concentration well in excess of both the general limit and the concentration presented by Froome.
This graph suggests it is perfectly feasible for Froome to be totally innocent doesn't it? I'm reading it right arn't I?
Here, a study has a shown that a dose similar to what Froome claims to have taken resulted in a urinary concentration well in excess of both the general limit and the concentration presented by Froome.