You are reading a single comment by @Scrabble and its replies.
Click here to read the full conversation.
-
This graph suggests it is perfectly feasible for Froome to be totally innocent doesn't it? I'm reading it right arn't I?
Here, a study has a shown that a dose similar to what Froome claims to have taken resulted in a urinary concentration well in excess of both the general limit and the concentration presented by Froome.
Scrabble
gbj_tester
It's not you he has to convince :)
While the Swiss study was technically doping (900μg in a 12h period, compared with the WADA limit of 800μg), it showed two things which are relevant, first a high of over 3000ng/ml in urine, and second the extreme sensitivity of urinary concentration to time. Taken together, they make determining the total dose taken from a single urine test look more like a coin toss than actual science.