Could Labour have fulfilled the "will of the people" requirement whilst voting against, making it clear that they were doing so due to no amendments having been added which would have protected the rights of said people?
I have to say I admire Ken Clark for voting as he did.
Could Labour have fulfilled the "will of the people" requirement whilst voting against, making it clear that they were doing so due to no amendments having been added which would have protected the rights of said people?
I have to say I admire Ken Clark for voting as he did.