If I owned a house outright with no mortgage valued at 300,000, I presume any money I borrowed against it in the form of a re-mortgage/loan would be income dependent?
Would there be a cap on the sum relative to income? Would there be stipulations on what purpose I was borrowing for?
If I owned a house outright with no mortgage valued at 300,000, I presume any money I borrowed against it in the form of a re-mortgage/loan would be income dependent?
Would there be a cap on the sum relative to income? Would there be stipulations on what purpose I was borrowing for?