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Twat, and also he's wrong (as you said - he should have pushed for this being the case when the bill was written).
http://researchbriefings.parliament.uk/ResearchBriefing/Summary/CBP-7249
Click on the Briefing Paper, and check out section 5.
This Bill requires a referendum to be held on the question of the UK’s
continued membership of the European Union (EU) before the end of 2017.
It does not contain any requirement for the UK Government to implement the results of the referendum, nor set a time limit by which
a vote to leave the EU should be implemented. Instead, this is a type
of referendum known as pre-legislative or consultative, which enables
the electorate to voice an opinion which then influences the
Government in its policy decisions. The referendums held in Scotland,
Wales and Northern Ireland in 1997 and 1998 are examples of this type,
where opinion was tested before legislation was introduced. The UK
does not have constitutional provisions which would require the
results of a referendum to be implemented, unlike, for example, the
Republic of Ireland, where the circumstances in which a binding
referendum should be held are set out in its constitution.In contrast, the legislation which provided for the referendum held on AV
in May 2011 would have implemented the new system of voting without
further legislation, provided that the boundary changes also provided
for in the Parliamentary Voting System and Constituency Act 2011 were
also implemented. In the event, there was a substantial majority
against any change. The 1975 referendum was held after the
re-negotiated terms of the UK’s EC membership had been agreed by all
EC Member States and the terms set out in a command paper and agreed
by both Houses.He - and his mates - are trying to fabricate a constitutional crisis.
IDS just on The Daily Politics arguing that the referendum result is legally binding. Why didn't he, as a member of the government, actually ensure it was when Parliament approved the legislation for it then?
The twat.