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1). The drug is known to be used by dopers for its performance enhancing effects. Was that considered prior to treatment?
2). There are other treatments without the enhancing side effects. Wiggins used these in the past. The drug has been descirbed as a sledgehammer to crack a nut. Were other treatments considered?
3). Was the drug used for preventative reasons, or to treat an episode?
4). The notorious doping doctor Geert Leinders was on the Sky staff at the time. He is alleged to have falsely obtained TUEs for this precise drug for use by Rasmussen as a PED prior to GTs. Did he play any role in the decision to apply for this TUE?
5). Why did the treatments coincide with major target races?
6). Why was the treatment not used in the 2014 and 2015 seasons? Did Wiggins' no longer suffer from asthma?We know TUEs can be falsely obtained and the system is open to abuse.
Do you have no interest in the answer to these questions? Don't you think it is notable that Wiggins is the only rider attracting attention? Froome's TUEs don't look dodgy, therefore he is attracting no scrutiny.
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Still not entirely sure what he's supposed to have done wrong, frankly. He got a TUE for a treatment. That means he was entitled to have that treatment. Which means that if he did receive that treatment then he stayed within the rules, and didn't cheat. What have I missed?