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If she's renting a room to you then she needs to be able to cover the mortgage herself, without your help - and then you arrange a rent agreement separately.
If she can't do that then you're on the mortgage and it's entirely fair that you end up owning some % of it as a consequence.I'd assume that she starts off with a % of the house ~= to the deposit. That sounds fairer to me than simply repaying the deposit. Or you agree which way to slice it, in the event of a house price crash and the deposit being worth less.
Then what's remaining of the house (i.e. the mortgaged bit) ends up split in line with what you're paying monthly.
All in writing of course. But hers and rent sounds unfair.
duncs
Im looking for some advice that hopefully some of you have had a similar situation too?
the tl;dr is - GF has a large(ish) deposit (~15%) ready to buy a house in the next 12 months or so. I have basically nothing to contribute towards a deposit (< 5k) but she likely needs me on the mortgage as my salary is more than double hers and hers is relatively low, for the price of housing in London.
We haven't really talked about the gritty details massively but her Dad (who over the years has contributed massively to the deposit) is keen for the house to be 'hers' not 'ours', and wants more of a me 'paying rent' situation.