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I'm no legal expert but if your salary is needed for mortgage then you'll be on the deeds. Therefore it would definitely be owned by both and not just her.
If her dad wants to protect the deposit, you can get a simple legal agreement drawn up whereby in the event of a sale, the deposit is returned to her (plus interest if she wants), then the remaining amount can be split.
That's what my dad-in-law did when he lent my wife and me some funds for our first flat. he's an ex-lawyer btw.
arcetype
Im looking for some advice that hopefully some of you have had a similar situation too?
the tl;dr is - GF has a large(ish) deposit (~15%) ready to buy a house in the next 12 months or so. I have basically nothing to contribute towards a deposit (< 5k) but she likely needs me on the mortgage as my salary is more than double hers and hers is relatively low, for the price of housing in London.
We haven't really talked about the gritty details massively but her Dad (who over the years has contributed massively to the deposit) is keen for the house to be 'hers' not 'ours', and wants more of a me 'paying rent' situation.