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  • Is that true? I don't claim to be an expert by any means, but as I understand it:

    • The European Commission can propose and draft legislation (regulations and directives) for approval by the European Parliament and Council.
    • If approved, the legislation then comes into effect, and all members states are bound by such legislation.
    • Compliance with the legislation by member states is interpreted by the European Court of Justice, who have the power to fine member states who don't comply.

    So how is the UK sovereign? It is subject to EU law.

  • I assume this was directed to me.

    1) It (the EU) has been given the right to enact these laws by the member state. The source of the power remains attached to the member state. 2) The bodies which do this include officials either elected by the public of the member state (Parliament) or appointed by the elected officials of the member nation (Commission). 3) The member state can revoke these powers (see: Brexit).

    It is an international treaty at the end of the day, not a federal government. If a member state does not want to comply with a law, it doesn't have to. There is no power which can enforce decisions made by the EU.

    Having said that, there is certainly a democratic deficit with the EU.

  • Nothing in what you said persuades me there is a material difference that invalidates the parallel I draw between Scotland's position in the UK and the UK's position in Europe.

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