• Is that true? I don't claim to be an expert by any means, but as I understand it:

    • The European Commission can propose and draft legislation (regulations and directives) for approval by the European Parliament and Council.
    • If approved, the legislation then comes into effect, and all members states are bound by such legislation.
    • Compliance with the legislation by member states is interpreted by the European Court of Justice, who have the power to fine member states who don't comply.

    So how is the UK sovereign? It is subject to EU law.

  • So how is the UK sovereign? It is subject to EU law.

    Only because it says that it is.

    Currently, is defers some of its sovereignty, in return for everything being part of a powerful trade bloc, and other advantages (and some disadvantages) provided by being a member of the EU.

    It can easily say that it isn't, and there's nothing that Europe can do to prevent them (other than take away the UK's EU-provided toys).

  • Which is exactly the position that Scotland is in, vis-a-vis the UK. The point I was querying was post #161. I fully agree the UK could achieve absolute sovereignty by means of an in out referendum from the EU, just as Scotland could have from the UK in 2014.

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